The Timing of the Rapture of the Church continued
copyright by Arthur Manning, 2002
In I Thessalonians 5:3 the sudden destruction experienced by the sinners
at the coming of the Lord is compared to "...travail upon a woman with
child...." This phrase in the context of the rapture may seem to offer
support to the pre-tribulation view since the Greek word, "odin",
translated as "travail", is also used in Matthew 24:8, where it is
translated as "sorrows". The Matthew 24:8 "sorrows" occurs before the
middle of the last seven years alluded to in Matthew 24:15 (when the
abomination of desolation is set up - see the discussion in the section
of this article on Matthew 24). So if the I Thessalonians 5:3 "travail"
refers to the same circumstances as the Matthew 24:8 "sorrows", then I
Thessalonians 5:3 occurs before the middle of the last seven years and
therefore so does the rapture described in the preceding verses. However,
the Greek word "odin" is not limited to birth travail, as is seen in its
use to describe our Lord’s "pains of death" in Acts 2:24. So just because
the same Greek Word is used in Matthew 24:8 and I Thessalonians 4:3, that
does not mean that the events in these two verses are the same,
especially since that Greek word is not a specific, but rather a general
term. In addition, the usage of "odin" in Matthew 24:8 is to describe the
beginning of "sorrows", whereas the usage of "odin" in I ‘Thessalonaians
5:3 is to describe "sudden destruction".
II Thessalonians
II Thessalonians has a considerable amount of space devoted to the end
times for a comparatively short letter. In the first chapter we read in
verses six through ten, "(6)Seeing it is a righteous thing with God to
recompense tribulation to them that trouble you; (7) and to you who are
troubled rest with us, when the Lord Jesus shall be revealed from heaven
with his mighty angels, (8) in flaming fire taking vengeance on them that
know not God, and that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ: (9)
who shall be punished with everlasting destruction from the presence of
the Lord, and from the glory of his power; (10) when he shall come to be
glorified in his saints, and to be admired in all them that believe...in
that day." In verse six Paul told the Thessalonians that God will
"...recompense tribulation..." to those that troubled them. Then in verse
seven and eight Paul added that God will give the Thessalonians rest
"...when the Lord Jesus shall be revealed from heaven with his mighty
angels, in flaming fire taking vengeance on them that know not God...."
Verses seven and eight definitely sound like the wrath of God for at
least three reasons: first, the Lord Jesus is accompanied by angels (cf.
Revelation 14:10); second, there is mention of fire (cf. Revelation 14:10
also); and third, there is mention of vengeance (vengeance, "ekdikesia"
in the Greek, is associated with wrath, "orge" in the Greek, in Luke 21:
22, 23). So it is not unreasonable to associate Paul’s reference to
vengeance (ekdikesia) with the wrath from which Christians are delivered,
according to I Thessalonians 1:10 (orge). One may infer that since the
ungodly will receive tribulation from God (II Thessalonians 1:6) and Paul
then goes on to describe the wrath of God, that therefore tribulation is
the same as wrath and therefore if Christians are saved from wrath, they
are saved from tribulation as well. There are problems with drawing these
conclusions. First, it is not certain that the tribulation that God will
recompense to the ungodly in verse six is the same as the wrath of God
described in verses eight and nine. Second, even if the tribulation in
verse six is the same as the wrath of God in verses eight and nine, it is
not necessarily the case that all tribulation is wrath. All wrath may
well be considered to be tribulation, but all tribulation cannot be
considered to be wrath. This is so because, as has been stated,
Christians will not experience God’s wrath (I Thessalonians 1:10), yet
there are many verses stating that Christians do experience tribulation,
as has already been noted. Even verse four of the chapter now being
considered relates how the Thessalonians were enduring tribulation.
Finally, verses seven and eight state when Christians will experience
rest. It is when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven with His mighty
angels, in flaming fire taking vengeance on them that know not God...."
This evidently takes place at the wrath of God which, as has been shown,
takes place "...immediately after the tribulation of those days" (Matthew
24:29-31). If a pre- or mid-tribulation rapture is to take place, these
verses would have probably been rendered to read something like "...to
you who are troubled, rest with us when we suddenly disappear and are
taken up to be with the Lord in heaven who later will return with us to
execute wrath." But verses seven and eight tell us that Christians will
experience rest when the wrath of God takes place. The words in verse
nine, "...punished with everlasting destruction..." reinforce the
conclusion that verses seven and eight describe God’s wrath. Verse ten,
"when he shall come to be glorified in his saints...", sounds like the
resurrection / rapture of the saints (I Corinthians 15:43, Colossians
3:4). Verses seven and eight, "...when the Lord Jesus shall be
revealed...taking vengeance..." are coupled with verse ten, "when he
shall come to be glorified in his saints." This agrees with Matthew
24:29-31 which also couples the post-tribulation wrath of God (verses 29,
30) with the resurrection / rapture (verse 31).
II Thessalonians chapter two is a major passage dealing with the rapture.
Peter said (II Peter 3:15,16) that some of Paul’s writings are "...hard
to be understood." However, he did not say they were impossible to
understand. II Thessalonians, chapter two would probably qualify as one
of Paul’s hard-to-understand passages. Notice in verse one that Christ’s
coming and "...our gathering together unto him" are coupled as they are
in Matthew 24:29-31, which takes place, "...immediately after the
tribulation of those days...." The Greek term for gathering in II
Thessalonians 2:1 (episunagoge) is another form of the Greek word for
gather in Matthew 24:31 (episunago), just as the English noun,
"gathering", is another form of the English verb, "gather". Adherents to
the pre-tribulation and mid-tribulation rapture views must believe that
the gathering in Matthew 24:31 does not refer to the rapture of the
Church; yet it is evident that the gathering in II Thessalonians 2:1 does
refer to the Church, since St. Paul calls it "our gathering". Since the
latter passage definitely refers to the Church, and since both passages
speak of Christ’s coming and a gathering using a form of the same Greek
word for "gather", it seems very reasonable that both passages refer to
the rapture of the Church.
Those who subscribe to a pre- or mid-tribulation rapture and believe that
II Thessalonians 2:1 refers to it are in the position of not only
believing in two future "comings" of Christ (a pre- or mid-tribulation
coming in this passage and a post-tribulation coming described in Matthew
24); but in two future "gatherings" of Christians, (a pre- or
mid-tribulation gathering in this passage and the post-tribulation
gathering described in Matthew 24). Why is there no place in the New
Testament that plainly speaks of two future comings or of two future
gatherings? Perhaps because there is only one of each, which occurs
"...immediately after the tribulation of those days..." (Matthew 24: 29).
II Thessalonians 2:2 tells us not to be troubled by the notion that the
"...day of Christ is at hand." This "day of Christ" most likely refers to
Christ’s return to execute the wrath of God. If Paul were referring to a
pre-tribulation rapture, that would not be troubling to believers. The
day of Christ here most likely is the same as the "day of the Lord" which
"...cometh as a thief in the night" (I Thessalonians 5:2). As has already
been shown, this most logically refers to Matthew 24:43, which in the
context refers to Christ’s coming in verse 30, which occurs, "immediately
after the tribulation of those days..." (verse 29). In support of this is
the usage of the term, "day of the LORD" in Isaiah 13:9-11 to refer to
the wrath of God. So Paul is most likely here telling the Thessalonians
not to be worried if someone says that the wrath of God is at hand. In
verse three he continues by giving reasons why we should not be deceived
by such pronouncements. First of all, something else must happen first:
"...a falling away..." (verse three). The term for "falling away" is
"apostasia", which means defection. It is the feminine form of another
Greek word, "apostasion", which refers to divorce. This may quite likely
refer to the same event prophesied in I Timothy 4:1, "now the Spirit
speaketh expressly, that in the latter times some shall depart from the
faith...." The Greek term here for "depart" is the word from which
"apostasia" and "apostasion" are probably derived, according to Strong’s
Concordance. Some have taught that this "falling away" means departure
and refers to the rapture. It hardly seems suitable to use a term which
has another form which means "divorce" to describe the rapture of the
Church. The only other time "apostasia" is used in the New Testament is
in Acts 21:21, where it is translated "forsake" and refers to the belief
of some that Paul was trying to influence the Jews to forsake Moses. This
hardly seems the kind of term that Paul would use to describe the
rapture. If Paul wanted us to believe that he was referring to the
rapture here he certainly could have used a more precise term, such as
"our gathering" or "the resurrection", instead of a term as vague as
"departure". It is pure assumption, at best, to infer that "apostasia"
refers to the rapture. I believe it is safest to agree with every
translation of which I am aware, none of which renders the term rapture
or any equivalent expression; all of which render it "falling away" or
something akin thereto. Something which may very well contribute to this
"falling away" in the end times could be the disappointment of those who
were counting on a rapture before the tribulation and defect when they
encounter tribulation before the rapture.
The second event which, according to II Thessalonians 2:3,4, must take
place before the day of the Lord is "...that man of sin be revealed, the
son of perdition; (4) who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is
called God, or that is worshiped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple
of God, shewing himself that he is God." When does this happen?
Definitely before the day of Christ, and most likely it is when the
abomination of desolation stands in the holy place, as mentioned in
Daniel and Matthew 24:15. As has already been discussed, this happens at
the mid-point of the last seven years. It seems that if Paul believed in
a pre-tribulation rapture or a mid-tribulation rapture, that he would
have quelled the fears brought on by any announcement of the day of the
Lord being at hand by telling the Thessalonians that they had nothing to
fear since they will be raptured seven, or three and one-half years prior
to God’s wrath. Or, if the Thessalonians were concerned about the rapture
having taken place and they having missed it and are now facing God’s
wrath, Paul could have assured them that that would not happen since they
truly believed the gospel (see chapter one, verses three and four). But
what Paul did do was to mention that there would be a "...falling away
first, and that man of sin be revealed..." (II Thessalonians 2:3). These
things precede the wrath of God; and the "man of sin" is revealed at the
mid-point of the last seven years. It seems that Paul was giving some
signs of the return of the Lord. Why would he give those signs if he
believed that the Christians would all be raptured either just before the
man of sin is revealed or three and one-half years before he is revealed?
In II Thessalonians 2:6,7, and the first part of verse 8 we read, "And
now ye know what withholdeth that he might be revealed in his time. (7)
For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth
will let, until he be taken out of the way. (8) And then shall that
wicked be revealed..." Withholdeth", "letteth", and "will let" are all
the same Greek word, "katecho", which means to hold down fast, in various
literal and figurative applications, according to Strong’s. Actually,
"will let" is not present in the Greek, but is implied. "What
withholdeth" is in the neuter and "he who now letteth" is in the
masculine. This is a difficult passage because it is vague. Paul does not
explicitly name what or who the agent is that "holds down" ("katecho").
Nor is this term used in this way in any of its other appearances in the
New Testament. Some commentators have suggested that it is civil
government which, we are told in Romans 13:1-4, is a restrainer of evil.
Those that subscribe to civil government being the restraining influence
interpret "...he be taken out of the way..." to refer to the antichrist
taking over civil government. Subscribers to the pre-tribulation and
mid-tribulation rapture theories often claim that this restraining
influence is the Holy Spirit and/or the Church. Either way, they claim
that "...he be taken out of the way..." (Verse 7) refers to the rapture.
Another view is that the restraining agent is Michael, the Archangel.
This is said to be supported by Daniel 12:1 which relates that Michael
shall "...stand up..." at a time of unprecedented trouble, which is how
Christ described the great tribulation in Matthew 24:21, which commences
when the antichrist is revealed. The reasoning is that "...stand up..."
can also be translated as "stands still". So if Michael stands still at
the time of the great tribulation, then evil is unrestrained and the
antichrist is revealed. Regardless of the identity of the restraining
influence, it appears that when he or it is removed, then the antichrist
shall be revealed ( (7) "...only he who now letteth will let, until he be
taken out of the way, (8) and then shall that wicked be revealed...").
Verses three and four state that "...and that man of sin be revealed, the
son of perdition; (4) who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is
called God or that is worshiped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple
of God, showing himself that he is God." These verses seem to indicate
that the revelation of the antichrist shall take place when he sits in
the temple of God. This apparently happens in the midst of the last seven
years. If the restraining influence is the Church and if when it is
removed the antichrist will be revealed, then this would indicate a
mid-tribulation rapture. However, this is all assuming that the
restraining influence is the church and/or the Holy Spirit. Since Paul
does not disclose the identity of the restraining agent it is not wise to
base the doctrine of the time of the rapture on assumption. In addition,
the removal of the restraining power is described in verse seven as
"...until he be taken out of the way." If Paul was here referring to the
rapture it would seem that he would have said "...until we be taken
away." In I Corinthians 15:52 Paul describes the rapture as "...we shall
be changed." Again, in I Thessalonians 4:17 Paul describes the rapture as
"...we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them
in the clouds...." In both of these major passages on the rapture, it is
spoken of in terms of "we", not "he". This would be contrary to the
notion that the Church is the restraining influence, but not necessarily
to the notion that the Holy Spirit is the restraining influence. However,
there is a problem with the Holy Spirit being the restraining agent, as
well, if the removal of the Holy Spirit is assumed to refer to the
rapture of the Church. If the Holy Spirit will be taken to heaven along
with the raptured Church, then it would seem impossible for anyone to be
saved after the rapture since Jesus said that a man must be born of the
Spirit to enter the kingdom of God (John 3:5). But Revelation 7:14
indicates that people will be saved during the great tribulation, so it
is reasonable that the Holy Spirit will still be on earth during that
time. Perhaps the Holy Spirit simply stops restraining the advancement of
evil. In order to consider II Thessalonians 2:7 to be a description of
the rapture one must assume that the restraining agent is the Church
and/or the Holy Spirit. If one assumes that the restraining agent is the
Holy Spirit, then one must further assume that the removal of the
restraining agent signifies the taking of the Holy Spirit to Heaven and
that, as a result, those who have the Holy Spirit will also be taken to
heaven. It is shaky to base doctrine on one assumption, and even shakier
to base doctrine on two assumptions about a vague passage of scripture,
especially when that doctrine is contrary to so many other passages
already herein dealt with. So those who believe that the removal of the
restraining influence coincides with the rapture end up having Paul
telling the Thessalonians that they are not to be concerned about the day
of Christ being "at hand" (verse two) because that will not happen until
two things take place: one is "...a falling away" (verse three) and the
other is the revelation of the antichrist (verse three) which happens
after the Church is raptured. This seems rather odd to tell the
Thessalonian Church to watch for two events, one of which will take place
after they are raptured. It would seem more reasonable to say that the
two events are the falling away and the rapture, unless the rapture takes
place after the antichrist is revealed.
One final way this passage may be interpreted to indicate a
post-tribulation rapture is as follows. Verse eight refers to the
definite post-tribulation return of Christ to earth and it calls this His
"coming" (Greek: parousia). Verse one also refers to Christ’s "coming" by
the same Greek word, (parousia) and associates it with our "...gathering
together unto him" (most easily understood to be the rapture). So the
term used for Christ’s post tribulation return in verse eight is used in
verse one in conjunction with what appears to be the rapture. It is
interesting that Christ’s "coming" in verse one is not only associated
with "our gathering", but is mentioned before it, just as we see in
Matthew 24:30,31, which occurs, according to verse 29, "immediately after
the tribulation..." In concluding this treatment of II Thessalonians
2:1-8, it should be reiterated that this is a vague passage, and
therefore should not be used as a basis of our understanding of the
timing of the rapture; but should be interpreted in the light of other,
more explicit passages.
I Timothy, II Timothy, Titus
In these three epistles we find references to the resurrection / rapture,
but no strong indications of the timing. I Timothy 6:14, II Timothy 1:10,
4:1, 4:8, and Titus 2:13 all mention our Lord’s "appearing". The Greek
term is "epiphaneia" and may be defined as "manifestation", according to
Strong’s. All of these usages refer to a future event with the exception
of II Timothy 1:10 which refers to our Lord’s previous coming. Those who
believe in a pre-tribulation or a mid-tribulation rapture typically
believe that the other four usages apply to the rapture of the Church.
They believe that this rapture will be a time when Christ only appears to
the Church, then seven or three and one-half years later He will return
and appear to the world. So these people actually believe in two future
appearances of our Lord. It should be noted that the II Timothy 1:10
appearance was not just to the Church, but to the world. So it does not
seem unreasonable to expect Christ’s future appearance to be not just to
the Church, but also to the world. Titus 2:13 describes Christ’s
appearing as "glorious". Matthew 24:30 describes our Lord’s
post-tribulation return as occurring with "great glory". The same Greek
term, "doxa", is translated "glory" and "glorious" in these two passages.
So adherents to the pre-tribulation and mid-tribulation rapture teachings
actually believe in two future glorious appearings. It would seem quite
reasonable to conclude that the "glorious appearing" of Titus 2:13 and
Christ’s post-tribulation return in "great glory" described in Matthew
24:30 are the same event. In addition, I Peter 4:13 speaks of "...when
his [Christ’s] glory ("doxa") shall be revealed...." This sounds like a
one-time event, contrary to the pre-tribulation and mid-tribulation
teachings. Finally, the term "epiphaneia" is translated as "brightness"
in II Thessalonians 2:8, a passage which, as has already been discussed,
definitely describes Christ’s post-tribulation return. The phrase is
"brightness of his coming". It is curious that this phrase is obviously
descriptive of a post-tribulation event; yet there are those who believe
that the word for brightness, "epiphaneia", applies to a pre- or
mid-tribulation event in the above passages and who also believe that the
word for coming, "parousia", applies to a pre- or mid-tribulation event
in such passages as I Thessalonians 4:15. It is certainly more consistent
to conclude that all of these usages of "epiphaneia" and "parousia" refer
to the same event, which according to II Thessalonians 2:8, occurs after
the tribulation.
Hebrews
In Hebrews 9:28 we are told that "...unto them that look for him (Christ)
shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation." This can be
interpreted to mean that Christ will only appear the second time to those
who look for Him. All others will not see Him. This interpretation is
consistent with the pre-tribulation and mid-tribulation belief that when
the rapture happens only believers will see the Lord. However, another
interpretation is that when Christ appears the second time, He will
appear without sin unto salvation only to those who look for Him.
According to this interpretation Christ will appear to all people, but
only "unto salvation" to those who are looking for Him. This
interpretation is consistent with the post-tribulation description of
Christ’s return in which He gathers His elect unto Himself and pours out
His wrath on the rest of the world (Matthew 24:30, 31 and Revelation
11:18). In the context, Christ is compared to the Jewish high priest
(Hebrews 9:11). The high priest went into the holy place of the
tabernacle with blood (Hebrews 9:7); and Christ entered "...into heaven
itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us..." (Hebrews
9:12,24). The Jewish high priest, after he had offered the sacrifice for
sins in the holy place, emerged from there and appeared the second time
to the people. Apparently Hebrews 9:28 describes Christ’s emerging from
the holy place to bless the people. It would seem a strange departure
from the analogy if, after Christ appears "...the second time..." He
would re-enter the holy place and then appear a third time three and
one-half or seven years later. Yet, that is what is believed by adherents
to the pre-tribulation and the mid-tribulation rapture theories. The
priest analogy is continued in the next chapter. Hebrews 10:12 and 13
tells us, "But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for
ever, sat down on the right hand of God; (13) from henceforth expecting
till his enemies be made his footstool." Verse 13 in the King James
version is a bit unclear to most modern speakers of English. Several
other translations render "expecting" as some form of "wait" or "await".
This is in keeping with the meaning of the Greek word here used. So verse
13 tells us that Christ is waiting at the right hand of God until His
enemies will be conquered. This will happen when He returns and executes
God’s wrath after the tribulation. This thirteenth verse is contrary to
the pre-tribulation and mid-tribulation rapture theories because in both
scenarios Christ leaves the right hand of God to meet His Church in the
air and then returns to God’s right hand. But verse 13 tells us that
Christ will be at God’s right hand until His enemies are subdued (which
occurs at the return of Christ after the tribulation).
Hebrews 10:36 and 37 state, "For ye have need of patience, that, after ye
have done the will of God, ye might receive the promise. (37) For yet a
little while, and he that shall come will come, and will not tarry." In
verse 37 the first "come" is the Greek term, "erchomai". This term is
used for the post-tribulation arrival of the Lord in Matthew 24:30. It is
also used in a variety of ways. However, the second "come" in verse 37 is
the Greek term, "heko", which means "to arrive", according to Strong’s.
This second term does not sound like an appearance only to His elect in
the clouds, followed by a return to heaven, such as is the case in the
pre-tribulation and mid-tribulation rapture scenarios. "Heko" means
arrive and is best understood as describing Christ’s post-tribulation
arrival to earth. Verse 37 starts with the word, "for". This shows a
relationship between this verse and the previous verse. The previous
verse, 36, speaks of believers receiving "...the promise". Therefore
there is a relationship between believers receiving "the promise" and
Christ’s return to earth. It seems as though the time for believers to
receive "the promise" coincides with Christ’s return to earth, which
occurs "...immediately after the tribulation" (Matthew 24:29-31). "The
promise" most likely refers to our bodies being changed to glorious
bodies, such as is described in I Corinthians 15:52, 53, and intimated in
Hebrews 9:15. Therefore, Hebrews 10:36 and 37 speak strongly of the
resurrection / rapture taking place when Christ returns to earth, in
accordance with the post-tribulation, pre-wrath scenario.
The Timing of the Rapture of the Church part two
The Timing of the Rapture of the Church continued
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